Q01. Consider the following statements:
1. Estimates of expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India are not submitted to
the vote of the Parliament and there can be no discussion on the same in either House of the
Parliament.
2. Vote of credit is a grant approved by the Parliament in advance of the detailed examination of
various demands presented to it.
3. Token grants do not involve additional expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3 B 3 only C 2 only D 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: 3 only
Q02. Assertion (A): An Election Commissioner in the Election Commission of India cannot be removed
from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Reason (R): An Election Commissioner is appointed on the recommendation of the Chief
Election Commissioner.
Codes:
A Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A B Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A C A is true but R is false D A is false but R is true
Show answer
Correct answer: A is true but R is false
Q03. If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha:
A He has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within six months B He can declare the government’s policies only in the Rajya Sabha C He cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no-confidence is under consideration D He cannot take part in the budget deliberations in the Lok Sabha
Show answer
Correct answer: He cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no-confidence is under consideration
Q04. Consider the following statements:
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India:
1. Audits all expenditures from the revenues of the Union and the States.
2. Ensures that total withdrawals by the Union Government do not exceed the amounts approved
by the Parliament.
3. Can comment on correctness or otherwise of financial transactions of the Union and the
States.
4. Points out cases of non-compliance of rules and regulations in expenditure.
Which of these are correct?
A 1 and 2 B 2, 3 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Correct answer: 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q05. The Governor of a State in his role as Administrator of an adjoining Union Territory exercises his
functions, as such independently of:
A The President of India B The State Council of Ministers C The Prime Minister D The Union Home Minister
Show answer
Correct answer: The State Council of Ministers
Q06. Which of the following are the common compulsory provisions of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional
Amendment Acts?
1. Five yearly elections
2. Reservation for backward classes
3. Reservation for women
4. Nagar Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A 2 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 1, 2, 3 and 4 D 1 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: 1 and 3
Q07. What is a ‘Shadow Cabinet’ in the British system?
A A group of young members of the ruling party B A group of members from the opposition party who scrutinize some functions of the
government and present alternative policy C A team of intellectuals who advise the Cabinet D A Cabinet Committee that functions under the guidance of the Cabinet
Show answer
Correct answer: A group of members from the opposition party who scrutinize some functions of the
government and present alternative policy
Q08. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Name of Panchayats) (States)
A. Janpad Panchayat 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Mandal Praja Parishad 2. Karnataka
C. Mandal Panchayat 3. Madhya Pradesh
D. Taluka Panchayat 4. Gujarat
Codes:
A B C D
A 4 2 1 3 B 3 1 2 4 C 4 1 2 3 D 3 2 1 4
Show answer
Correct answer: 3 1 2 4
Q09. The purpose of an adjournment motion is to:
A Propose a reduction in the budget B Seek the approval of the House on a proposal C Draw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent public importance D Seek the leave of the House to introduce a Government Bill
Show answer
Correct answer: Draw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent public importance
Q10. Statement I: If in a cut motion during discussion of demands for grants in the Annual Financial
Statement, the reduction demanded is either in the form of a lump sum or
omission or reduction of an item in the demand, the motion which enables such
cut is known as ‘Economy Cut’.
Statement II: The motion in the above case represents disapproval of the policy underlying the
demand.
Codes:
A Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I. B Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I. C Statement I is true but Statement II is false. D Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Show answer
Correct answer: Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Q11. Lokayukta submits his report to the:
A Chief Minister of the State B Chief Justice of the State High Court C Governor of the State D Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
Show answer
Correct answer: Governor of the State
Q12. Which of the following ensure functional autonomy of the UPSC?
1. The Chairman and Members can be removed only on the grounds given in the Constitution.
2. The expenditure of the Commission is a charge on the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The Members and Chairman are allowed to accept jobs after retirement.
4. The Chairman and Members being civil servants function in a neutral manner.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Correct answer: 1 and 2
Q13. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 24 High Courts at present in India.
2. Calcutta, Bombay and Madras High Courts were established in the year 1862.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A Only 1 B Only 2 C Both 1 and 2 D Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: Both 1 and 2
Q14. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health,
every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right:
1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A Only 1 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: 1, 2 and 3
Q15. The Parliament does not have exclusive power to make any law with respect to which one of the
following subjects?
A Shipping and navigation B Stock exchanges C Trade and commerce in foodstuffs D Insurance
Show answer
Correct answer: Trade and commerce in foodstuffs
Q16. Which of the following statements is/are correct in relation to the legislative procedure regarding
bills in the Parliament?
1. A bill pending in the Parliament shall not lapse by reason of prorogation of the Houses.
2. A bill pending in the Council of States, which has not been passed by the House of the
People, shall not lapse on dissolution of the House of the People.
3. A bill which is pending in the House of the People, or which having been passed by the
House of the People is pending in the Council of States, shall, subject to the provisions of
Article 108 (joint sitting of both Houses), lapse on dissolution of the House of the People.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A 1 and 2 B Only 1 C 2 and 3 D 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: 1, 2 and 3
Q17. Which one among the following is the distinguishing factor between a pressure group and a political party?
A Pressure groups are confined to a few, while political parties involve larger number of people. B Pressure groups do not seek active political power, while political parties do. C Pressure groups do not politically motivate people, while political parties do. D Political parties take political stance, while pressure groups do not bother about political
issues.
Show answer
Correct answer: Pressure groups do not seek active political power, while political parties do.
Q18. Assertion (A): No criminal proceedings can be instituted against the Governor of a State in any
court during his tenure of office.
Reason (R): There is a provision under the Constitution of India for such protection to the
Governor of a State.
Codes:
A Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A B Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A C A is true but R is false D A is false but R is true
Show answer
Correct answer: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Q19. Consider the following statements:
A municipal corporation’s income (revenue) is derived from:
1. Local taxes
2. Grants from State Government
3. Income from remunerative enterprises
4. Tax sharing between State Government and the Municipal Corporation concerned
Which of these statements are correct?
A 1, 2 and 4 B 1, 2 and 3 C 2, 3 and 4 D 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Correct answer: 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q20. According to the Constitution of India, a New All-India Service can be created if:
A The Parliament of India enacts a law by a special majority prescribed under Article 312 of the
Constitution B The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-third majority of its members present and
voting and an absolute majority of the whole House C The President of India so desires and issues a proclamation to that effect D The State Governments initiate such a proposal
Show answer
Correct answer: The Parliament of India enacts a law by a special majority prescribed under Article 312 of the
Constitution